One year ago
McKinsey released a report on biosimilars. They explained what happened in Europe after 2005 regulation. Now
NRD has published an interesting article by Henry Grabowsky et al. that shows wide differences within Europe. In
Germany, 42% of the market of Epoetin is biosimilar, while UK remains at 7,9% (!). The article explains the reasons behind such variation. If we have to summarise in one cause, this would be: incentive regulation. And since prices are 25% less than original products, such difference has high opportunity costs for UK citizens (however the price levels in Germany is higher than the UK).
In their words:
One major finding is that the competitive performance of the biosimilars we analysed in Europe is mixed both across countries and products. Although the European Union has a common regulatory system for approving biosimilars, differences in reimbursement practices and incentives as well as variations in medical practices have resulted in different outcomes across countries.
Does anybody know what's happening here?
PS.
IMS presentation.
